The California Secretary of State here lists the parties that invited independent voters to vote in their primaries for the period 2004 through 2012. This proves that before the top-two system was put into effect, independent voters could vote in both the Republican and Democratic primaries for congress and state office.
This Secretary of State’s list only starts with 2004, but both major parties allowed independents to vote in their primaries in 2002 as well. Evidence for this is in “America Votes”, Volume 25, authored by Richard Scammon, Alice McGillivray, and Rhodes Cook, and published by Congressional Quarterly in 2003. Page 61 says, in 2002, “California has a semi-open primary.” It then says, “Voters registered with a recognized party in California could vote only in their party’s primary. Other voters could participate in the primary of the Democratic, Republican, American Independent or Natural Law Parties.”
Could any voter regardless of party preference for any candidate regardless of party preference?
Yes.
All voters were able to obtain a primary ballot with the partisan state office and congressional races on it. Any voter could vote for any candidate for those offices on a primary ballot. If the voter’s favored candidate wasn’t listed on such a primary ballot, the voter could vote for that candidate anyway via write-in.
What would happen if the voter’s favored candidate had not made a declaration as a write-in candidate for that party?
Ballot Access has been a WAR event since the official ballots came along in 1888-1890.
Failure to collect enough legal ammo [IF there is any] = DEFEAT in the WAR.
A sovereign State of the Union can NOT change how its PUBLIC officers are nominated and elected according to PUBLIC LAWS ???
What about the 1888-1890 official ballots stuff ???
Somehow UN-constitutional ???